Does anyone believe that the difference between the Lebesgue and Riemann integrals can have physical significance, and that whether say, an airplane would or would not fly could depend on this difference? If such were claimed, I should not care to fly in that plane.
Richard Hammin in: Sy M. Blinder Guide to Essential Math: A Review for Physics, Chemistry and Engineering Students, Newnes, 14 February 2013, p. 16.
